Dinesh D'Souza writes:
Arguably the United States took preemptive action in World War II when American forces attacked Germany. Hitler had condemned, but not attacked, the United States. Only Japan attacked the United States. So America's assault on Germany, following the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, would seem to be a case of legitimate preemptive action.
Germany declared war on the United States. Then the United States declared war on Germany. There was nothing, absolutely nothing, pre-emptive about it.
Is the National Review's history as bad as their economics? It seems so.
Posted by robe0419 at October 19, 2004 3:16 PM